Math, asked by skdixit082, 10 months ago

Simply this please help me​

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Answered by ItzStarling
1

Answer:

☆VERIFIED ANSWER ☆

IF WE TAKE (X +Y+Z)

TAKE (-1)AS COMMON AND SEE

-(X-Y-Z)^2

SO NOW WE HAVE BOTH THE BASES SAME SINCE THE BASES ARE SAME THAT * MARK WILL BE REPLACED BY 2

Answered by Anonymous
0

hope it will helps u .....✌✌

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