sin⁻¹(cos π/6) is equal to.......,Select Proper option from the given options.
(a) π/6
(b) π/3
(c) π/2
(d) 3π/2
Answers
Answered by
1
sin^(-1)[sin{π/2-π/6}],
it will becomes
π/2 - π/6,
(3π-π)/6,
2π/6,
π/3
it will becomes
π/2 - π/6,
(3π-π)/6,
2π/6,
π/3
Answered by
14
HELLO DEAR,
GIVEN:-
sin-¹(cosπ/2)
as we know:- cosθ = sin(π/2 - θ)
therefore,
Sin-¹{sin(π/2 - π/6)}
=> π/2 - π/6
=> (6π - 2π)/12
=> 4π/12
=> π/3
HENCE, OPTION (B) IS CORRECT,
I HOPE ITS HELP YOU DEAR,
THANKS
GIVEN:-
sin-¹(cosπ/2)
as we know:- cosθ = sin(π/2 - θ)
therefore,
Sin-¹{sin(π/2 - π/6)}
=> π/2 - π/6
=> (6π - 2π)/12
=> 4π/12
=> π/3
HENCE, OPTION (B) IS CORRECT,
I HOPE ITS HELP YOU DEAR,
THANKS
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