Math, asked by vickeykumar73, 11 months ago

Sin inverse X + Sin inverse Y barabar to 2by 3 then Cos inverse X + Cos inverse Y equal to​


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Answers

Answered by abhi178
9

we know, sin^{-1}A+cos^{-1}A=\frac{\pi}{2}

so, sin^{-1}X+cos^{-1}X=\frac{\pi}{2}

\implies sin^{-1}X=\frac{\pi}{2}-cos^{-1}X........(1)

and sin^{-1}Y+cos^{-1}Y=\frac{\pi}{2}

\implies sin^{-1}Y=\frac{\pi}{2}-cos^{-1}Y........(2)

given, sin^{-1}X+sin^{-1}Y=\frac{2}{3}

from equations (1) and (2),

\frac{\pi}{2}-cos^{-1}X+\frac{\pi}{2}-cos^{-1}Y=\frac{2}{3}

or, -cos^{-1}X-cos^{-1}Y+\pi=\frac{2}{3}

or, cos^{-1}X+cos^{-1}Y=\pi-\frac{2}{3}

hence, cos^{-1}X+cos^{-1}Y=\pi-\frac{2}{3}

Answered by MaheswariS
13

Answer:

cos^{-1}x+cos^{-1}y=\frac{\pi}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula used:

1.sin^{-1}x is an angle whose sine value is x

That is

If \:sin\theta=x, then \:sin^{-1}x=\theta

2.sin^{-1}x+cos^{-1}x=\frac{\pi}{2}

Given:\\\\sin^{-1}x+sin^{-1}y=\frac{2\pi}{3}\\\\(\frac{\pi}{2}-cos^{-1}x)+(\frac{\pi}{2}-cos^{-1}y)=\frac{2\pi}{3}\\\\\pi-(cos^{-1}x+cos^{-1}y)=\frac{2\pi}{3}\\\\cos^{-1}x+cos^{-1}y=\pi-\frac{2\pi}{3}\\\\cos^{-1}x+cos^{-1}y=\frac{3\pi-2\pi}{3}\\\\cos^{-1}x+cos^{-1}y=\frac{\pi}{3}


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