SinA÷1+cosA=1-cosA÷sinA
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Answered by
0
Answer:
YES
Step-by-step explanation:
yes it's true; we know cos^2A+sin^2A=1
now sin^2A=1-cos^2A which can further be written as
sinA*sinA=(1+cosA)(1-cosA) now cross multiplying we get
sinA/(1+cosA)=(1-cosA)/sinA
THIS IS THE QUESTION YOU WROTE
I REALLY HOPE THIS HELPS YOU
Answered by
1
Answer:
Hope this helps...... and yes , remember to write ( Hence proved ) i accidentally forgot to write it
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