Math, asked by Mahato07, 8 months ago

SinA÷1+cosA=1-cosA÷sinA

Answers

Answered by kushalvarma
0

Answer:

YES

Step-by-step explanation:

yes it's true; we know cos^2A+sin^2A=1

now sin^2A=1-cos^2A which can further be written as

sinA*sinA=(1+cosA)(1-cosA)   now cross multiplying we get

sinA/(1+cosA)=(1-cosA)/sinA

THIS IS THE QUESTION YOU WROTE

I REALLY HOPE THIS HELPS YOU

Answered by Sedria
1

Answer:

Hope this helps...... and yes , remember to write ( Hence proved ) i accidentally forgot to write it

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