Physics, asked by souvikdalal80, 8 months ago

Since force is applied on an object of mass 1 kg velocity v = (i + 2j + 3k) m / s to V = (3i + 4j- k) m

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Answered by rokings3613g

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particle moves with a velocity → v = 6i–4j+ 3k m/sunder the influence of a ... The instantaneous power applied to the particle is [CBSE PMT 2000] (a) 35 J s-1 (b) 45 Js–1 (c) 25 ...

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Since force is applied on an object of mass 1 kg velocity v = (i + 2j + 3k) m / s to V = (3i + 4j- k) m​

Answers

Since force is applied on an object of mass 1 kg velocity v = (i + 2j + 3k) m / s to V = (3i + 4j- k) m