so that 2✓2 is irrational no.
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Step-by-step explanation:
If possible,let 2√2 be rational.
Then,there exist co-primes a and b(b is not equal to 0)such that 2√2=a/b.
Now,2√2=a/b
or,√2=a/2b ----(i)
Now,a/b is rational
or,a/2b is rational
or,√2 is rational {from((i)}
But,it is given that √2 is irrational.
Thus,the contradiction arises by assuming that 2√2 is rational,
hence 2√2 is irrational.
PROVED
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