Math, asked by lalsangzuali, 9 months ago

solve (1-cos²A)sec²A=tan²A​

Answers

Answered by itsbiswaa
1

Answer:

tan²A+1=sec²A

taking LHS

tan²A+1

tanA=sinA/cosA

so, using this...

sin²A/cos²A+1

(sin²A+cos²A)/cos²A

(sin²A+cos²A=1)

1/cos²A

sec²A

hence, LHS=RHS.....

hope it helps u

plzmark as brainliast answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answered by pragatibhatt2922
7

Answer:

LHS=RHS

Step-by-step explanation:

(1+cos^2A)sec^2A=tan^2A

sin^2A(1/cos^2A)=tan^2A

sin^2A/cos^2A=tan^2A

tan^2A=tan^2A

LHS=RHS

HENCE PROVED

I HOPE YOU UNDERSTAND .......

MARK ME BRAINLIEST......

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