Question

Solve it , could not solved by me ​

Answer 1

there's ur ans. I hope it helps!

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Answer 2

Answer: x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

See, first of all we should get the bases same.

That means all the bases should be $\frac{1}{2}$.

To make $\frac{1}{16}$ into $\frac{1}{2}$ we have to write it as $(\frac{1}{2} )^{4}$

So now as all the bases are same we just have to solve it.

$(\frac{1}{2}) ^{4} X (\frac{1}{2} )^{2} =(\frac{1}{2} )^{3x-2}$

As we know that $a^{m}$x $a^{n}$ = $a^{m+n}$

So using this formula we can write,

$(\frac{1}{2} )^{4+2}$$=(\frac{1}{2}) ^{3(x-2)}$

$(\frac{1}{2} )^{6} =(\frac{1}{2} )^{3(x-2)}$

Now as the base are same we can use Linear equations.

6 = 3(x-2)

x-2 = 2

x = 4