Question

solve option no . 4
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Answer 1

Explanation:

We know that r = mv/bq

1. when v =same

r[α/p] =  4/2 =2m

2.  mv =same

  r[α/p]  =1/2

3. same energy we should take r = √(2mE) /Bq

Therefore r[α/p]  = 1

4.same potenial also r[α/p] = 2√2

  (we know that Energy = eV where  e =charge ad V =potential