Math, asked by arpi240803, 1 year ago

Solve question number 2(d) and (e)....Both the answers are false..I just want the reasons..

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Answers

Answered by Shaik96
1
Multiplying or dividing the same number on both sides of an inequality doesn't change the inequality(provided the multiplying or dividing number is not zero)

Shaik96: Take c as a number <0 u will get the answers
Shaik96: I assumed that C>0
Answered by Anonymous
1
D. Suppose a= 2 and b= 3.

a<b because 2<3.

Multiply both by any number where c does not equal to 0.

Let c= 2/3/4/...

2*2< 3*2
4<6.... Similarly..

ac<bc.

E. Similarly as D, a= 3 and b=1.

a>b because 3>1.

Divide both sides by any number. For example 1.

3/1 > 1/1

3>1...

a/c > b/c.

Hope it's helpful to u.

arpi240803: but both the answers are false. It is mentioned in the book.
arpi240803: Answer of d-false
arpi240803: answer of e-false
Shaik96: This is only applicable for c>0. for c<0 then the inequality gets changed
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