Math, asked by Vyaki, 11 months ago

solve the following question​

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Answered by Anonymous
0

this is ur answer

multiplicative inverse of (1/6)-²

(1/6)²

1/36

1/36x36/1

=1

hope it helps u

plz mark as brainliest

Answered by Anonymous
0

 \huge \underline \mathbb {SOLUTION:-}

Assume that x = 0.9999…..Eq (a)

Multiplying both sides by 10,

10x = 9.9999…. Eq. (b)

Eq.(b) - Eq.(a), we get

10x = 9.9999…

x = 0.9999…

9x = 9

x = 1

The difference between 1 and 0.999999 is 0.000001 which is negligible.

Hence, we can conclude that, 0.999 is too much near 1, therefore, 1 as the answer can be justified.

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