Question

solve the question and explain.​

Answer 1

answer

According to question,

( { \frac{p}{q} })^{n - 1} = ({ \frac{p}{q} })^{n - 3}

Since, bases are equal so on equating powers,

⇒ n – 1 = n – 3

⇒ n – n = 1 – 3

⇒ 0 = – 2

But, this is not possible as 0 ≠ – 2

∴ There is no real value of n which satisfies above equation.

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