Solve the Question P versus NP problem... Wrong answers will be spammed or there points will be detucted so i need only correct answer question is complete so dont say anthing....
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If P = NP, why does P = NP also then equal NP-Complete?
I.e. Why would it then be the case that P = NP = NP-Complete?
Assuming P != NP , there were problems in NP not in NP - Complete. When P = NP, all NP problems are actually now P.
Shouldn't there still be P = NP problems not in NP - Complete?
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I.e. Why would it then be the case that P = NP = NP-Complete?
Assuming P != NP , there were problems in NP not in NP - Complete. When P = NP, all NP problems are actually now P.
Shouldn't there still be P = NP problems not in NP - Complete?
Hope it helps ✌️✌️
Please mark as Brainliest
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