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we can assume that p(anb)=p(a)np(b), then let a,b be any two sets p(a)=(1,2,3),p(b)=(3,4,5) then then p(anb)=p(3)=p(1,2,3)np(3,4,5) =(3) so hence proved. I hope it helps you, please mark me as brainliest by A L V Sahasra
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