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Answers
Answer:
(D) None ( it is actually ln(α+1) ).
Step-by-step explanation:
Easy approach --- eliminating incorrect options
Call the given integral J(α). Notice right away that when α=0, the integrand is identically zero, so J(0) = 0. This rules out options (A) and (C).
Now consider what happens when α=1. The integrand is undefined at x=1, taking the form 0/0, but we can use l'Hospital's rule to check the limit there.
As x --> 1, (x-1) / (ln x) --> 1 / (1/x) = x --> 1.
Also, as x-->0, x-1 --> -1 and ln(x) --> -∞, so the integrand tends to 0.
Furthermore, the integrand is always positive on the interval (0,1).
So the region whose area is J(1) is contained within the unit square from (0,0) to (1,1). It follows that J(1) < 1.
But 2ln( 1+1 ) = 2ln2 = ln4 > 1, since 4 > e. This rules out option (B).
It follows that the answer is option (D).
Harder approach --- working out what the answer actually is
We can work out J(α) by making use of the fact that this is a function of α. Using Leibniz's integral rule for passing differentiation under an integral sign, we can get the derivative J'(α). Then we can work back to J(α) from there.
First, the derivative J'(α):
From here, we have J(α) = ln(α+1) + C.
Now, when α=0, the integrand is identically zero, so J(0) = 0. Thus C=0 and it follows that
J(α) = ln(α+1).