Math, asked by nehagarg018, 5 months ago

such that
(a) f (c) = k
(c) f (c) <k
(b) f(c) >k
(d) None of these
42. Iff is derivable in [a, b] and f (a) f(b), then for e
lying between f'(a) and f' (b), there exist some point c belongs to a and b

Answers

Answered by albia60
1

Answer:

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