Question

Suppose an object at rest. We apply force on it to move . There is frictional force too acting on it. Now we stop applying force but still object is moving and friction is present. However acc to the 3 law of motion there should be no frictional force . How? . Explain it please

Answer 1

Answer:

See, the question itself (that u are asking) is ambiguous. When a body is at rest, it means that it is in equilibrium i.e ∑forces=0. Now, when you apple a force, another force called friction acts in the opposite direction of the applied force. Now, as you keep on increasing your push on the object, the friction also increases. This happens until a certain limit. When you apply a bit of force over this 'limit', the object starts to move. This is when the body has overcome friction and is moving. But after you stop applying the force the body will eventually come to rest due to friction.