Question

tan 52* tan 38* ka man gyat kro

Answer 1

Because tan52°xtan38°=tan(90°-38)×tan38°=cot38×tan38=1

Answer 2

The value of $\tan 52 \tan 38$ is equal to 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

$\tan 52 \tan 38$

To find, the value of $\tan 52 \tan 38=?$

∴ $\tan 52 \tan 38$

$=\tan 52 \tan (90-52)$

[ ∵ $\cot A=\tan (90-A)$]

$=\tan 52 \cot 52$

$=\tan 52 \times \dfrac{1}{\tan 52}$

[ ∵$\cot A=\dfrac{1}{\tan A}$]

= 1

Hence, the value of $\tan 52 \tan 38$is equal to 1.