Math, asked by riyashazi786, 8 months ago

tan inverse 1 by 2 + tan inverse 1 by 3 equal to pi
by 4​

Answers

Answered by Brightcorner
0

Answer:

i cant understand your question can you rewrite it please

Step-by-step explanation:

I am sorry telling this

Answered by kkaran80391
0

Answer:

1 is correct answer

hope

it

help you

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