Math, asked by suvam4028, 1 year ago

tan+Sec-1 by tan-Sec+1=1+Sin by Cos


mansimj2003: It can not be possible only with tan or sec so kindly edit ur Q as tanA and secA...

Answers

Answered by rishabhtejpal
13
shi ho toh brainliest kr dena
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Answered by guptasingh4564
4

Hence Proved.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

\frac{tanA+secA-1}{tanA-secA+1} =\frac{1+sinA}{cosA}

LHS:

\frac{tanA+secA-1}{tanA-secA+1}

=\frac{tanA+secA-(sec^{2}A-tan^{2}A)  }{tanA-secA+1}  ( ∵sec^{2}A-tan^{2}A=1)

=\frac{(tanA+secA)-(secA-tanA) (secA+tanA) }{tanA-secA+1}

=\frac{(tanA+secA)(1-secA+tanA)}{tanA-secA+1}

=tanA+secA

=\frac{sinA}{cosA} +\frac{1}{cosA}

=\frac{1+sinA}{cosA}

=<strong>RHS</strong>

Hence Proved.

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