Math, asked by moparvej10, 1 year ago

tell me answer of question 48 fast as possible

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Answered by nitishray57
0
since man gained as much percent as its cost price so, he sold his article at his double price of cost so, cost price will be half of the selling price then, c.p=96/2= ₹48.

... Thanks Be always brainliest....

nitishray57: thanks..
Answered by siddhartharao77
4

Let the cost price be 'x'.

Given that selling price of an article = 96.

Given that profit% = x%

We know that Cost price = [(100)/100 + Gain] * SP

⇒ x = [100/100 + x] * 96

⇒ x^2 + 100x = 9600

⇒ x^2 + 100x - 9600 = 0

⇒ x^2 + 160x - 60x - 9600 = 0

⇒ x(x + 160) - 60(x + 160) = 0

⇒ (x - 60)(x + 160) = 0

⇒ x = 60,-160{neglect negative value}

⇒ x = 60.



Therefore, Cost price of an article = 60.


Hope it helps!

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