Class:- 9th
subject:- maths
chapter :- polynomial
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Answer:
No it is rational no.
Step-by-step explanation:
When we'll use farmula (a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2 in above equation then we'll get (2+✓3)(2-√3)=(2)^2-(✓3)^2=4-3=1
so value is 1 which can be written as 1/1, It is in the form of p/q where p,q are integers and q is not equal to zero.
hence given no. is a rational no.
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