Math, asked by sagar24643, 2 months ago


a ^{m}
is \: the \: multiplicative \: inverse \:  \\ of \: a ^{ - m}
True or False....




( I think it is false. Is it)





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Answers

Answered by HafsahShabir
1
I also think it is false
Answered by Anonymous
21

Required Answer :

  • It's is false mate :)

Here's is the reason :D

So, We know multiplicative inverse of a^m will be :

  \sf\:  \dfrac{1}{am}

As per laws of exponents:

 \sf \:  \dfrac{1}{am} =   {am}^{ - 1}

  • So it is false !
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