Math, asked by llXxDramaticKingxXll, 2 months ago

 f(x) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{\tan\pi x^2 +(x+1)^n\sin x}{x^2+(x+1)^n}\\\\Then,\:\lim_{x\to0} f(x) = ?

Maths Aryabhatta and Apperitiance Moderator please help me​

Answers

Answered by sarthakde3465
1

Answer:

Yoo!

I am Sarthak, Please mujhe apna friend balao

Answered by yadavanshukumar529
0

Answer:

iriyroudkgdiyditeiyeiydkgdmvsksieiteiyeyoeiyeiye8yf

Similar questions