Economy, asked by Anonymous, 9 months ago

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sachin the given consumer consumes only two goods X and Y whose price are rupee2 and rupee1 per unit respectively if he chooses a combination of the two good with marginal utilitiy of X being 4 and that of Y also being 4 is the given consumer equilibrium? Give reason!!

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Answers

Answered by Abignya
6

Explanation:

MUx/Px=4/2

MUy/Py=4/1

MUx/Px=MUy/Py

which is not true in this case,i.e, the consumer is not in equilibrium

As MUy/Py>MUx/Px  , a Rational consumer will buy more of y commodity and less of x commodity. MUy will fall and MUx will rise (in accordance to law of diminishing marginal utility. This will continue till MUy/Py=MUX/Px,i.e, the consumer reaches equilibrium.

Answered by Anonymous
3

Answer:

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According to the utility approach, a consumer reahes equilibrium where the following equality is met.

 \frac{ mu_{x} }{p_{x}}  =  \frac{ mu_{ y} }{ p_{y} }

According to the given question

  =  &gt; \frac{ mu_{x} }{p_{x}}  =   \frac{4}{2}  \\  =  &gt; \frac{ mu_{ y} }{ p_{y} }  =  \frac{1}{1}  \\ so \: \: . \frac{ mu_{y} }{p_{y}} \:is \:  greater \: than\frac{ mu_{x} }{p_{x}} \:

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thus,

to reach the equilibrium,a rational cosumer would increase the ,

 \frac{ p_{y}}{ p_{x} }  \: of \: good \: x.

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