Math, asked by MysteriousAryan, 4 days ago

\huge\red{\fbox{\bf{Question}}}

If the sum of m terms of an A.P. is equal to the sum of either the next n

terms or the next p terms, then prove that:

(m + n)( \frac{1}{m }  -  \frac{1}{p} ) = (m + p)( \frac{1}{m}  -  \frac{1}{n} )

Answers

Answered by ITZSnowyBoy
0

Answer:

If the sum of m terms of an AP is equal to the sum of either the next n terms or the next p terms, then prove that (m+n)(m1−p1)=(m+p)(m1−n1).

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