Question

$\left \{ {{y=2} \atop {x=2}} \right. \int\limits^a_b {x} \, dx \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&2&3\\4&5&6\\7&8&9\end{array}\right] \pi \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&2&3\\4&5&6\\7&8&9\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&2&3\\4&5&6\\7&8&9\end{array}\right] =$

Answer 1

Answer:

Sometimes we can't work something out directly ... but we can see what it should be as we get closer and closer!

Example:

(x² − 1)/(x − 1)

Let's work it out for x=1:

(12 − 1)/(1 − 1) = (1 − 1)/(1 − 1) = 0/0

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

$\left \{ {{y=2} \atop {x=2}} \right. \int\limits^a_b {x} \, dx \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&2&3\\4&5&6\\7&8&9\end{array}\right] \pi \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&2&3\\4&5&6\\7&8&9\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&2&3\\4&5&6\\7&8&9\end{array}\right] =$