Answers
Let us assume to reach our contradiction that (p)^(1/n) is rational. So that (p)^(1/n) can be written in the form of a/b, where a, b are co-prime integers and b > 0. Such that,
⇒ (p)^(1/n) = a/b
⇒ ((p)^(1/n))ⁿ = (a/b)ⁿ
⇒ p = aⁿ/bⁿ
⇒ pbⁿ = aⁿ
Here seems that aⁿ is a multiple of p. As a is an integer and n > 1, if aⁿ is a multiple of p, then so will be aⁿ. So let a = px. Such that,
⇒ pbⁿ = aⁿ
⇒ pbⁿ = (px)ⁿ
⇒ pbⁿ = pⁿ xⁿ
⇒ bⁿ = pⁿ⁻¹ xⁿ
As n > 1, n - 1 > 0, so that pⁿ⁻¹ is an integer. Here seems that bⁿ is a multiple of pⁿ⁻¹, which is a multiple of p. So bⁿ is also a multiple of p. As b is also integer, if bⁿ is multiple of p, then so will be b.
But this contradicts our earlier assumption that a, b are co-prime integers, because here seems that both a and b are divisible by p.
So our assumption is contradicted.
∴ (p)^(1/n) is irrational.
Hence proved!!!
Thank you...