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Answered by
10
Question :
Solution :
Let us assume
1 as a
sin∅ as b
cos ∅ as c
So for the numerator we can use the identity (a + b – c)²
which states (a + b – c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab – bc – ca)
And for denominator we will apply (a + b + c)²
which states (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab + bc + ca)
Now we know that sin²∅ + cos²∅ = 1
so by applying that we get
Hence Proved !!
Answered by
2
Answer:
aponi akhomor pora hua ni ki
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