The cartesian product BxA is equal to the cartesian product AxB
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Answer:
No.
Step-by-step explanation:
suppose, set A be { a1, a2, a3} and set B be { b1, b2, b3},
no for
A×B = {(a1,b1), (a2,b2), (a3,b3)}
B×A = {(b1,a1), (b2,a2), (b3,a3)}
clearly they are not equal as their respective elements are not same.
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