Math, asked by dhanvithakkar108, 8 months ago

The expansion of (x+1/x)^2 will be (x^2+2x+1/x^2) Please help....I will mark as Brainliest ​

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Answered by TakenName
3

The statement is false:

The expansion of \sf{(x+\dfrac{1}{x} )^2} will be \sf{x^2+2+\dfrac{1}{x^2} }.

Proof:

\sf{(x+\dfrac{1}{x})^2= (x+\dfrac{1}{x} )(x+\dfrac{1}{x} )}

By use of distributive law

\sf{=x(x+\dfrac{1}{x})+\dfrac{1}{x}(x+\dfrac{1}{x})}

Expansion

\sf{=x^2+\dfrac{\cancel{x}}{\cancel{x}}+\dfrac{\cancel{x}}{\cancel{x}}+\dfrac{1}{x^2}}

\sf{=x^2+2+\dfrac{1}{x^2} }

Therefore the statement was proven false.

Informations:

  • True statement

For a statement to be true, it is required to be true all over the cases.

One exception will prove the claim false.

  • Components of Statements

\boxed{\sf{Universal\:Set\:\mathbb{U}}} : which contains all the cases. It can be real numbers, natural numbers, or a defined set.

\boxed{\sf{Truth\:Set}} : conditions where the statement is true.

In conclusion:

(Where x=1)

  • \sf{(x+\dfrac{1}{x} )^2=(1+\dfrac{1}{1} )^2=4}
  • \sf{x^2+2x+\dfrac{1}{x^2}=1^2+2(1)+\dfrac{1}{1^2} =4}

\sf{\therefore{(x+\dfrac{1}{x} )^2=x^2+2x+\dfrac{1}{x^2} }}

So in conclusion, not only we can show the statement is false, it is true when the universal set \mathbb{U} is defined as \sf{\mathbb{U}=\{1\}},

though it is universally taken that set \mathbb{U} is over all the numbers.

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