The first mean value theorem is also known as
(a) Cauchy's mean value theorem
(b) Rolle's theorem
(c) Lagrange's mean value theorem
(d) none of these
Answers
Answered by
3
Answer:
(C) Lagrange's mean value theorem
Answered by
2
Answer:
To prove the Mean Value Theorem using Rolle's theorem, we must construct a function that has equal values at both endpoints. The Mean Value Theorem states the following: suppose ƒ is a function continuous on a closed interval [a, b] and that the derivative ƒ' exists on (a, b) .
Similar questions