English, asked by jhanvigoswami14, 2 months ago

The Indirect speech has only ---------------------- at the end of the sentence.​

Answers

Answered by mandalarchu8
1

Answer:

The indirect speech has only fullstop (.) at the end.

Answered by arvindbhaiasalaliya
0

Answer:

"has had" is used for the third person singular ( he/she/it). Example: He has had dinner. The past perfect form of have is had had (had + past participle form of have). The past perfect tense is used when we are talking about the past and want to refer back to an earlier past time.

Explanation:

When using indirect or reported speech, the form changes. Usually indirect speech is introduced by the verb said, as in I said, Bill said, or they said. Using the verb say in this tense, indicates that something was said in the past.

What is the indirect speech of has?

"has had" is used for the third person singular ( he/she/it). Example: He has had dinner. The past perfect form of have is had had (had + past participle form of have). The past perfect tense is used when we are talking about the past and want to refer back to an earlier past time.

What are the rules of indirect speech?

What is the indirect speech of the sentence?

When using indirect or reported speech, the form changes. Usually indirect speech is introduced by the verb said, as in I said, Bill said, or they said. Using the verb say in this tense, indicates that something was said in the past. In these cases, the main verb in the reported sentence is put in the past.

linguistics, indirect speech (also reported speech or indirect discourse) is a grammatical mechanism for reporting the content of another utterance without directly quoting it. For example, the English sentence Jill said she was coming is indirect discourse while Jill said "I'm coming" would be direct discourse.

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