Math, asked by Anonymous, 3 months ago

the inverse laplace transform of s/(s+1^2 )(s^2+4)

Answers

Answered by shaurya222745
0

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answered by sulaimankhan1
1

Answer:

HEY BUDDY THIS IS YOUR ANSWER..

Step-by-step explanation:

Now the inverse Laplace transform of 2 (s−1) is 2e1 t. Less straightforwardly, the inverse Laplace transform of 1 s2 is t and hence, by the first shift theorem, that of 1 (s−1)2 is te1 t.

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