Math, asked by manishkumar441, 9 months ago

The inverse of a
bijection.
bijection is aalsoa bijection

Answers

Answered by amurtazarather
0

Answer:

property 2: If f is a bijection, then it's inverse f-1 is surjection

proof of property 2: since f is a function from A to B, for any X in A there is an element y in b such that

y= f(X), then for that y, f-1 (y)=f-1

(f(X))=X, since f-1 is the inverse of f.

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I hope it will b helpful

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