Question

The multiplicative inverse exists for all rational numbers true or false ​

Answer 1

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation:

i think so i might be wrong

Answer 2

Answer:

"The multiplicative inverse exists for all rational numbers" It's FALSE.

Step-by-step explanation:

Zero is a rational number. But the multiplicative inverse of 0 doesn't exist, because of 1/0 = undefined.

• The multiplicative inverse of a number say, N is represented by 1/N or N-1. It is also called reciprocal, derived from a Latin word ‘reciprocus‘. The meaning of inverse is something which is opposite. The reciprocal of a number obtained is such that when it is multiplied with the original number the value equals to identity 1. In other words, it is a method of dividing a number by its own to generate identity 1, such as N/N = 1.

• When a number is multiplied by its own multiplicative inverse the resultant value is equal to 1.

• Consider the examples, the multiplicative inverse of 3 is 1/3, of -1/3 is -3, of 8 is 1/8 and of 4/7 is -7/4. But the multiplicative inverse of 0 is infinite, because of 1/0 = infinity. So, there is no reciprocal for a number ‘0’. Whereas the multiplication inverse of 1 is 1 only.

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