Math, asked by neha487, 1 year ago

the multiplicative inverse of 1 is

Answers

Answered by palaku
2
It doesn't have a multiplicative inverse; it is the multiplicative identity. 
identity element for multiplication is 1 since a/1=a
so multiplicative inverse of 1 is 1 since 1/1=1

sssrohit005p4c0ey: kk
palaku: plsss dont chat here
cialli1: i m jst only in confision
cialli1: tqqqq
cialli1: fr hlp
cialli1: kk
palaku: plsss inbox him but dont chat over here
sssrohit005p4c0ey: mention not yrr
sssrohit005p4c0ey: kk bye
cialli1: by g
Answered by Anonymous
0
1/-1

Or, -1/1

Or, -1 Ans.

Of course, other numbers would have different inverses.


sssrohit005p4c0ey: the ans is 1/1
sssrohit005p4c0ey: it means that it doesn't have any inverse.....
sssrohit005p4c0ey: because The product of a number and its multiplicative inverse is 1.
Similar questions