Math, asked by zainkhan137, 6 months ago

the numbers which have its own multiplicative inverse are​

Answers

Answered by Jyot6116
0

Answer:

Since the multiplicative inverse of an integer is 1. So if we multiply 1 × 1, then the answer will be one which is the multiplicative inverse of itself.

Answered by vanshika7846
1

Answer:

1 is the right answer

Step-by-step explanation:

if we multiply 1 by 1 it's product is 1

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