Social Sciences, asked by badalkumar88043, 21 hours ago


The southern parts of India continued to be
unaffected by Aryan culture, Why?​

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Answered by vetapalemgajendra
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Explanation:

Indigenous Aryanism

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Indigenous Aryanism, also known as the Indigenous Aryans theory (IAT) and the Out of India theory (OIT), is the conviction[1] that the Aryans are indigenous to the Indian subcontinent,[2] and that the Indo-European languages radiated out from a homeland in India into their present locations.[2] It is a "religio-nationalistic" view on Indian history,[3][4] and propagated as an alternative to the established migration model,[5] which considers the Pontic steppe to be the area of origin of the Indo-European languages.[6][7][8][note 1]

Reflecting traditional Indian views[3] based on the Puranic chronology, indigenists propose an older date than is generally accepted for the Vedic period, and argue that the Indus Valley Civilization was a Vedic civilization. In this view, "the Indian civilization must be viewed as an unbroken tradition that goes back to the earliest period of the Sindhu-Sarasvati (or Indus) tradition (7000 or 8000 BCE)."[9]

Support for the IAT mostly exists among a subset of Indian scholars of Hindu religion and the history and archaeology of India,[10][11][12][13][5] and plays a significant role in Hindutva politics.[14][15][3][web 1][web 2] It has no relevance, let alone support, in mainstream scholarship.[note 2]

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