Math, asked by mmohamedshaheer, 10 months ago

the statement ~(p or q)or(~p and q) is logically equivalent to (A)p (b)~p (c)q (D)~q

Answers

Answered by mahajanekansh25
0

Answer:

b...................

Answered by sdupadhyay1256
0

Answer:

Namely, p and q are logically equivalent if p ↔ q is a tautology. If p and q are logically equivalent, we write p ≡ q. Example: ... So (p → q) ↔ (q ∨ ¬p) is a tautology.

Step-by-step explanation:

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