Physics, asked by SmartBoy9886, 1 year ago

The wave function for a particle must be normalizable in a given region because

Answers

Answered by Riccicurvaturetensor
1
Because if we tahe the copenhagen interpretation than
{ \psi}^{2} \: gives \: the \: probability
Therefore when we integrate psi^2 with limits of the given region then it should be equal to 1.

This condition is satisfied for a constant A which 'normalize' the wavefunction
Answered by Shaizakincsem
0

The options for this question are missing. Following are the options:

a. The particle ' s angular momentum must be conserved.

b. The particle cannot be in two places at the same time.

c. The particle ' s momentum must be conserved.

d. The particle ' s charge must be conserved.

e. The particle must be somewhere.

Option E is the correct answer.

(e) The square of the wave function is a likelihood dissemination portraying the plausible areas of the molecule.

Since it is a probability distribution, its necessary over all space (i.e. the likelihood that the molecule is SOMEWHERE) must be

1. Since it must coordinate to 1, it must be normalizable.


Similar questions