Physics, asked by emmadigopal, 11 months ago

The wave-function of a particle must be "normalizable", because

Answers

Answered by Shaizakincsem
5

The options for this question are missing. Following are the options:

a. The particle ' s angular momentum must be conserved.

b. The particle cannot be in two places at the same time.

c. The particle ' s momentum must be conserved.

d. The particle ' s charge must be conserved.

e. The particle must be somewhere.

Option E is the correct answer.

(e) The square of the wave function is a likelihood dissemination portraying the plausible areas of the molecule.

Since it is a probability distribution, its necessary over all space (i.e. the likelihood that the molecule is SOMEWHERE) must be

1. Since it must coordinate to 1, it must be normalizable.

Answered by nimraunber2
0

Answer:

finite

Explanation:

it not be zero in an wpplied linit of infinity. It isequal to 1

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