Science, asked by Divyansh1775, 9 days ago

the workinput of a machine is 200j.if 40j is used to overcome friction, calculate the efficiency of the machine

Answers

Answered by geniusshakya2018
1

Answer:

I guess the answer is 20%

Explanation:

Efficiency = (Output work/Input work)*100%

                = (40/200)*100%  

Then multiply 40 and 100% you get 4000%

                =4000%/200

                =20%

Therefore, The efficiency of the machine is 20%. I guess. If wrong then very sorry.

Answered by jian2022korea
1

Answer:work input=200J

work output=work input -friction .

. =200J - 40J

. =160J

Efficiency= work output/work input × 100%

. =160J/ 200J × 100%= 80%

Explanation:

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