there was never a law of primogeniture during the accession of the Mughal throne. often swords clashed among the sons of the deceased sultan. how far was this rule justified in those times, could this be applicable for present times? why or why not?
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The Mughals did not follow the system of primogeniture (where the eldest son gets the throne). They followed coparcenary inheritance (where the empire is equally divided among the sons). But this system resulted in many conflicts and rebellions within the family. This is applicable in present times as everything should be divided equally among the sons and daughters (there should be no gender inequality).
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