Math, asked by Anonymous, 11 months ago

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Mtrpia , a small country has the following coins in circulation : 1 paisa , 2paise , 5paise, 10paise, 20paise, 50 paise and 1 rupee.
Suppose it is known that you can pay A paise with B coins.............
Prove that you can pay B rupees with A coins.
[Assume that there are infinite amount of coins]

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Answers

Answered by sushilkumaragr468
0

Let x1, x2, x5, x10, x20, x50 and x100 be the ammounts of 1, 2, 5, 10, 20, 50 and 100 paises when we give A paises with B coins. Then

A=x1+2x2+5x5+10x10+20x20+50x50+100x100

and

B=x1+x2+x5+x10+x20+x50+x100.

Then

100B=100x1+100x2+100x5+100x10+100x20+100x50+100x100==100(x1)+50(2x2)+20(5x5)+10(10x10)+5(20x20)+2(50x50)+(100x100).

So we can give 100x100 1 paise coins, 50x50 2 paise coins and so on

Please mark it brainlist yaar plesae mark kar do and thanks se bhar do


Anonymous: next time copy mat karna thik hein :-)
Anonymous: tell me u wont then i would mark brainliest
Answered by Ritiksuglan
0

Answer:

Let x1, x2, x5, x10, x20, x50 and x100 be the ammounts of 1, 2, 5, 10, 20, 50 and 100 paises when we give A paises with B coins. Then

A=x1+2x2+5x5+10x10+20x20+50x50+100x100

and

B=x1+x2+x5+x10+x20+x50+x100.

Then

100B=100x1+100x2+100x5+100x10+100x20+100x50+100x100==100(x1)+50(2x2)+20(5x5)+10(10x10)+5(20x20)+2(50x50)+(100x100).

So we can give 100x100 1 paise coins, 50x50 2 paise coins and so on

Please mark it brainlist yaar plesae mark kar do and thanks se bhar do

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