Math, asked by MohammadFaisal1, 1 year ago

this question pleas solve this

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1
⭐⭐Hello friend...Ur answer is here⤴⤴

I HOPE IT IS HELPFUL TO YOU ☺
Attachments:

MohammadFaisal1: thanku ashu bro
Anonymous: Ur wlcm dude
Answered by teddy270696
0
ʃcos (x).dx = sin (x)
Therefore, 
 \int\limits^ \pi _0 {cos (x)} \, dx = [sinx] \left \ {{ \pi } \atop {0}} \right.
= sin ( \pi ) - sin(0)
=0-0 = 0
Similar questions