English, asked by kabirrajjj, 5 months ago

topic on imagination​

Answers

Answered by aaliyakhan53
3

Answer:

The notion of a "mind's eye" goes back at least to Cicero's reference to mentis oculi during his discussion of the orator's appropriate use of simile.[11]

In this discussion, Cicero observed that allusions to "the Syrtis of his patrimony" and "the Charybdis of his possessions" involved similes that were "too far-fetched"; and he advised the orator to, instead, just speak of "the rock" and "the gulf" (respectively) — on the grounds that "the eyes of the mind are more easily directed to those objects which we have seen, than to those which we have only heard".[12]

The concept of "the mind's eye" first appeared in English in Chaucer's (c.1387) Man of Law's Tale in his Canterbury Tales, where he tells us that one of the three men dwelling in a castle was blind, and could only see with "the eyes of his mind"; namely, those eyes "with which all men see after they have become blind".[13]

The condition of not being able to internally visualize (the lack of a ”mind’s eye”) is called Aphantasia.

Explanation:

hope this helps you

follow me take care

Similar questions