Transition of electric charge to “magnetic charge” when $\alpha$ gets >> 1 in QED?
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When we introduce electromagnetic field in Special Relativity, we add a term of−ecAidxiinto Lagrangian. When we then derive equations of motion, we get the magnetic field that is defined as→H=∇×→A.
If we now take divergence of both sides of this definition, we automatically get
∇⋅→H=0,
which is equivalent to inexistence of magnetic charges.
But suppose we've found a magnetic charge. What will change in our Lagrangian or in definition of electric and magnetic fields in this case to make ∇⋅→H=σ?
In this Phys.SE answer it's asserted that magnetic field would get an additional term "gradient of a scalar potential". Is this "a" scalar potential instead "the" A0 potential?
If we now take divergence of both sides of this definition, we automatically get
∇⋅→H=0,
which is equivalent to inexistence of magnetic charges.
But suppose we've found a magnetic charge. What will change in our Lagrangian or in definition of electric and magnetic fields in this case to make ∇⋅→H=σ?
In this Phys.SE answer it's asserted that magnetic field would get an additional term "gradient of a scalar potential". Is this "a" scalar potential instead "the" A0 potential?
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