Math, asked by bhbajhakanakka, 6 months ago

Triangles on the same base and between the same parallels are equal in area

Answers

Answered by llAloneSameerll
48

━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━

\huge\purple{\mid{\fbox{\tt{question}}\mid}}

Triangles on the same base and between the same parallels are equal in area

\huge\purple{\mid{\fbox{\tt{Solution}}\mid}}

\blue{Given}

  • Two ∆ABC and DBC on the same base BC and between the same parallel lines BC and AD.

\green{To\:prove}

  • ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆DBC).

\red{Construction}

Through B, draw BE || CA, meeting DA produced in E. And, through C,draw CF || BD, meeting AD produced in F.

\pink{Proof}

BE || CA and EA || BC ⇒ BCAE is a ||gm.

CF || BD and DF || BC ⇒ BCFD is a ||gm.

Clearly,the ||gms BCAE and BCFD are on the same base BC and between the same parallel lines BC and EF.

∴ ar(||gm BCAE) = ar(||gm BCFD)⠀⠀⠀⠀⠀⠀⠀...(i)

But, a diagonal of a ||gm divide it itno two triangles of equal areas.

\therefore \: ar(\triangle \: ABC =  \frac{1}{2} ar( || gm \: BCAE) \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:... (ii) \\

and \: ar(\triangle \: DBC) =  \frac{1}{2} ar( || gm \: BCFD). \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \: ...(iii) \\

Thus, from (i),(ii) and (iii),we get

ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆DBC).

━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━

Answered by shagunsingh17
6

Answer:

answer ar 24500

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it will help you

Similar questions