triangles on the same base and between the same parallels
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Answered by
1
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Are equal because of bpt theorem
simran2991:
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Answered by
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Hola dear ☺️❤️
Two triangles on the same base (or equal bases) and between the same parallels are equal in area.
Here's the proof⤵️⤵️⤵️
(refer to the attachment for the figure)
____________________________
Theorem:
Two triangles on the same base (or equal bases) and between the same parallels are equal in area.
Given:
∆ABC and ∆DBC are on the same base BC and between same parallel lines BC and FE.
To prove:
ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆DBC)
Construction:
Draw CE || BA and BF || CD
Proof:
⤵️⤵️
Quadrilateral ABCE is a parallelogram (construction)
and,
Quadrilateral FBCD is also a parallelogram (construction)
Since, ||gm ABCE and ||gm FBCD are on the same base and between the same parallels
Therefore, ar(||gm ABCE) = ar(||gm FBCD) ....... (i)
But AC is the diagonal of ||gm ABCE
Therefore, ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆ACE)
Therefore, ar(∆ABC) = 1/2 ar(||gm ABCE) ....... (ii)
Similarly, we can prove that
ar(∆DBC) = 1/2 ar(||gm FBCD) ....... (iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii), ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆DBC)
Hence, proved.
_____________________________
Hope it is helpful to you ✌️✌️
Two triangles on the same base (or equal bases) and between the same parallels are equal in area.
Here's the proof⤵️⤵️⤵️
(refer to the attachment for the figure)
____________________________
Theorem:
Two triangles on the same base (or equal bases) and between the same parallels are equal in area.
Given:
∆ABC and ∆DBC are on the same base BC and between same parallel lines BC and FE.
To prove:
ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆DBC)
Construction:
Draw CE || BA and BF || CD
Proof:
⤵️⤵️
Quadrilateral ABCE is a parallelogram (construction)
and,
Quadrilateral FBCD is also a parallelogram (construction)
Since, ||gm ABCE and ||gm FBCD are on the same base and between the same parallels
Therefore, ar(||gm ABCE) = ar(||gm FBCD) ....... (i)
But AC is the diagonal of ||gm ABCE
Therefore, ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆ACE)
Therefore, ar(∆ABC) = 1/2 ar(||gm ABCE) ....... (ii)
Similarly, we can prove that
ar(∆DBC) = 1/2 ar(||gm FBCD) ....... (iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii), ar(∆ABC) = ar(∆DBC)
Hence, proved.
_____________________________
Hope it is helpful to you ✌️✌️
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